HIV AND AIDS

 

1.

The system directly affected by HIV other than immune system ?

 

a.  Cardiovascular        b.  Respiratory           c.  Gastro-intestinal

d.  Central Nurous 

Ans:

d.

 

 

2.

Toxoplasma gondii in AIDS patients frequently comes

 

a.  Retintus            b.  Encephalitis  c.  Meningitis

d.  Hydrocephalus

Ans:

b.

 

 

3.

JC Virus in HIV-infected patients comes

 

a.  Encephalitis          b.  Hepatitis          c.  Progressive Multifocal .......

d.  Pneumonia

Ans:

c.

 

 

4.

Cells that capture the virus & transport it to regional lymph nodes

 

a.  Follicular dendritic cell          b.  Mucosal dendrite cell

c.  Langahans Cell                     d.  Both b & c

Ans:

d.

 

 

5.

All of the following are reservoirs of HIV infected cells except

 

a.  Peripheral blood      b.  Spleen        c.  Lymph nodes

d.  Tourils

Ans:

a.

 

 

6.

Which is the best surrogate marker of HIV disease ..............

 

a.  HIV-RNA        b.  Leurocyte count               c.  ..... Lymphocyte count

d.  CD4 unit

Ans:

a.

 

 

7.

PCP develops in ____% of AIDS patients

 

a.  100%         b.  75%           c.  50%           d.  25%

Ans:

c.

 

 

8.

The risk of developing non-................. lymphoms in AIDS patient is _____ fold grater than in gen. popl?

 

a.  120        b.  100           c.  50           d. 20      e.  same

Ans:

a.

 

 

9.

KS (Kaposi’s sanoma) cells produce all of the foll except

 

a.  TNF-x      b.   IL – 1        c.  IL – 6       d.   GM-ISF        e.  IFN-Y

Ans:

e

 

 

10.

The most common extranodal site involved in system AIDS-related lymphoma.

 

a.  GIT          b.  CNS         c. Salivary glands       d  Lung        e. Orbit

Ans:

b.

 

 

11.

AIDS-related lymphoma is

 

a.  Systemia         b.  CNS        c. Body cavity        d.  All the above

Ans:

d.

 

 

12.

AIDS pts have a high incidence of the foll tumors except

 

a.  NHL          b.  KS        c.  CaCx     d.  Gastric Ca

Ans:

d.

 

 

13.

In Toxoplasma fondii in HIV Pt. the seriology

 

a.  is always positive     b. is usually negative      c.  is always negative

d.  cannot be completely negative.

Ans:

d.

 

 

14.

The following drugs cause pancreatits except

 

a.  AZT / ZDV (Zidorudine)     b.  ddl (didanouine)     c.  ddc (Zalci tabine)

d.  3TC (lamimdire)       e. 24 T (Starudine)

Ans:

a.

 

 

15.

For persistent generalised lymphadenopathy in HIV, all of the foel should be fullfilled except

 

a.  Nodes should be > 1 cm.       b.  at 2 different sites      c.  for >6 months

d.  Absence of other cause         e.  all of the above

Ans:

C for > months

 

 

16.

Prognous for those with PGL

 

a.  3 times poor as those who do not         b.  2 times poor as those who do not

c.  Same as those who do not                   d.  2 times good

Ans:

c.

 

 

17.

Indication for anti retroviral durg therapy for HIV in UK is when .......... is less than

 

a.  800/mm3         b.  500/mm3             c.  200/mm3         d.  300/mm3

Ans:

d.

 

 

18.

Herpes simplex infection in HIV infection is seen in

 

a.  100%       b.  50%       c.  35%      d.  25%     e.  20% cares

Ans:

e.

 

 

19.

CMV refinitis is seen when CD4 count is

 

a.  <50    b.  <1 00       c.  <200      d.  200-500      e.  >500 cells/m3

Ans:

a.

 

 

20.

An HIV pt. presents c sore mouth reddened mucosa & smooth shiny tongue. The probbale diagnosis is

 

a.  Aphthous ulcer      b. Nonseptic glousitis       c.  Candidiaris

d.  Oral having leucoplakia

Ans:

c.

 

 

21.

In a HIV pt. with opthalmic herpes zoster, the treatment is

 

a.  Symptomatic      b.  Oral aichorir      c.  Parentral aciclouir   

d.  Both b & c

Ans:

c.

 

 

22.

Scabus in HIV commonly involves

 

a.  Web space     b.  Periumbilical area      c.  Buttock     d.  Face or neck

Ans:

d.

 

 

23.

Gastrointestinal CMV commonly involves

 

a.  Esophgus        b.  Color      c.  Small intestine     d.  Stomach

Ans:

e.

 

 

24.

Common ................... of cryptospoidium infection in HIV

 

a.  Arymptomatic      b.  Malabsorption     c.  Ion of wt.     d.  Dianhoes

Ans:

d.

 

 

25.

In MAI infection in a HIV pt, the full are rear except

 

a.  Hepatospleenomegaly      b.  Mediastinal lymphadenopathy   

c.  Anaemia      d.       ALP     e.  Acid phosphatare

Ans:

e.

 

 

26.

Drugs used for cryptosporidium inf?

 

a.  Ponamomycin         b.  Fluconazole       c. Azithromyuin

d.  Both a & c               e.  All of the above.

Ans:

d.

 

 

27.

Drugs used for pulmonary kapovi’s sarcome

 

a.  Liposomal doxorubicin       b.  Incristine       c.  Blcomyin

d.  All of the above

Ans:

d.

 

 

                                

1.

All the following drugs are use dto pep Rx except

 

a.  Pentamide         b.  Dapione          c.  ..............................

d.  ...................       e.  Asovaquene

 

 

2.

Which of the following Al s are ineffective against MTB?

 

a.  ...............................     b. ................................   c. .....................................

d.  Anticecin.

 

 

3.

Which of the following ........................................

 

a.  Lactophenol cotton blue         b.  Calcofluor white             c. ...................

d. .....................                           e.  None of the above

 

 

4.

Change in regmen of ART should be considered when all the following occur except

 

a.  Cofold reduction in .....................      b.  Failure to .........................

c.  .........................................     d. ........................

 

 

5.

Rimotide in ............................................... all the following except

 

a.  More ...............................    b. ......................................

c.  .......................................     d. .......................................

e.  Higher spectrum

 

 

6.

Which of the following in .......................................

 

a.  It undergo significant .......................         b.  Absolute .......................

c.  ...........................................     d.  Done using ..........................

 

 

7.

Which of the following ................................

 

a.  More than 30000 ................................   b.  Target level after ................. should be HIV RNA undertake in blood    c. ..............................

d.  Shouldbe due 3-4 weeks after .......................

 

 

8.

All of the following correct regarding MC except

 

a.  Extremely common in pts        b.  ..................................

c.  .........................................       d. Topical retinoic acid is very useful in Mx.

 

 

9.

According to who classification system of HIV ................................

 

a.  Clinical stage I         b.  II           c.  III         d.  IV

 

 

10.

Oval having leuco plastria

 

 

 

 

HIV/AIDS PATHOGENES IS / TRANSMISSION

 

1.

The protein expressed by HIV that down regulates HLA Class I molecules on the surface of HIV infected cells, thus rendering them unrecognizale to CD 8 antotoxic (CTL) cells is

 

 

a) vpu    b) Nef  (p24)    c) rev     d) tat

ANS:

(B)

 

 

2.

Select the true statement / statements :

 

a)       Non dividing cells are resistant to retroviral infection because proviral  integration occurs during and phase of cell cycle.

 

b)       Lentiviruses can infect non-dividing cells, largely owing to the effects of Vpr.

 

c)       Vpr promotes G2 cell cycle arrest and facilitates HIV infection of macrophages

 

d)       All of the above

 

e)       None of the above

 

ANS :

(D)

 

 

3.

Match the following:

 

a) net         p15 (1)           (b) tat          p24 (2)

c) rev         p14 (3)           (d) vpr         p19 (4)

ANS:

C

 

 

 

A)  a4    b3    c1    d2         (B)  a3    b4    c1    d2

 

C)  a2    b3    c4    d1         (D)  a3    b1    c4    d2

 

 

4.

All of the following have NOT been associated with transmission of HIV infection except

 

 

a)     platelet concentrate

b)     hepatitis B immune globulin

c)      plasma derived Hepatitis B  vaccine

d)     clothing factor concentrates

ANS:

A

 

The procedures involved in processing these products either inactivate or remove the virus.

 

 


 

5.

The risk of HIV transmission following skin puncture from a needle contaminated with blood from a person with documented HIV infection is

 

a)  3%           b)  1%        c)     0.1%         d) 0.3%

ANS:

D

 

 

6.

The vitamin whose deficiency in the mother that increases the likelihood of mother to child transmission of HIV via breast feeding is

 

 

a) E     b) A          c)  B2        d) D

ANS:

B

 

 

7.

The major obstacle to any goal of eradication of HIV from infected individuals is

 

 

a)  Persistent pool of latently infected cells (post integration latency)

 

b)  Preintegration latency

 

c)  Insufficient immune response

 

d) Opportunistic infections

ANS:

B

 

 

8.

The term “viral set point” denotes

 

a)  The number of viruses need for establishing infection

 

b)  Plasma viremia at which patient becomes symptomatie

 

c)  Desirable plasma viremia after ART

 

d)  Level of steady state viremia.

 

 

9.

Long term survivors by definition remain alive for

 

a) ³ 5 years after initial infection

 

b) ³ 10 years after initial infection

 

c) ³ 15 years after initial infection

 

d) ³ 20 years after initial infection

ANS:

D

 

 

10.

Transmission of HIV via saliva is rare because of all of the following except

 

a)     It contains HIV specific IgA, IgC, IgM.

b)     The large glycoproteins mucin & thrombospondin sequester HIV into aggregates for clearance by the host.

c)      SLPI (Secretory leucocyte protease inhibitor) blocks HIV infection.

d)     Disruption & lysis of HIV infected cells occurs because of the hypotonicity of oral secretions.

e)     None of the above.

ANS:

E

11.

Saliva produced by which of the following salivary glands is suggested to reduce HIV infectivity by stripping gp 120 from the surface of virious?

 

a)     Submanidbular                            b)  Sublingual

c)   Parotid                                         d)   Minor Salivary glands.

 

 

12.

AIDS is the ___________________leading cause of mortality worldwide.

 

(a) Fourth         (b) Third           (c) Fifth            (d)     Sixth

ANS:

A

 

 

13.

Specialized regious in the lipid bilayer of the host cell membrane through which budding of pregency virious occurs are known as

 

(a) Lipid cores     (b) Lipid nests    (c)  Lipid  rafts       (d) Lipid pools

ANS:

C

 

 

14.

LTR (long terminal repeat) sequences of the HIV geno…..

 

a) Promotes CD4 degradation  & influences virious release

 

b) Contains RNA transacting response element that bindsTat

 

c) Promotes down regulation of surface CD4 & MHC expression

 

d) Blocks apoptosis

 

A – vpu          C-nef               D – nef

ANS:

B

 

 

15.

Lack of circumcision is strongly associated with a higher risk of HIV infection because of

 

a)     Increased susceptibility of uncircumcised men to ulcerative STDs.

b)     Highly vascularised inner foreskin  tissue contains high density of the cellular targets for HIV – Langerhans cells, CD4 + T cells, macrophages etc.

c)      Moist environment under the foreskin promotes microtrial flora, which via inflammatory changes, may lead to a higher concentration of target cells for HIV.

d)     All of the above

e)     None of the above

ANS:

D


                                               
HIV/AIDS

 

1.

The intensity of apoptosis in a HIV infected individual correlates with

 

a)     General state of immune activation

b)     Stage of disease

c)      Viral burden

d)     None of the above

ANS:

A

 

 

2.

All the following cytokines are potent and consistent induces of HIV expression except.

 

a)  TNFa

 

b)   IL-1b

 

c)   IL - 6

 

d)   IFNa          - Suppress HIV replication

ANS:

D

 

 

3.

Select the wrong statement

 

a)     TRECs (T cell receptor excision circles) are hyproducts of T cell development

b)     They represent episomal fragments of DNA that are excised during T cell receptor gene rearrangement.

c)      An increase in thymic output or a decrease in T Cell turnover leads to an increase in TREC levels.

d)     Levels of TRECs declines following initiation of antiretroviral therapy

ANS:

D

 

 

4.

The cytokines that inhibits infection by R5 strains of HIV but enhance infection by X4 strains are

 

a) Proinflammatory cytokines  (TNFa,   IL1b, IL-6)   

 

b) CC chemokines (RANTES, MIPIa, MIPIb)

 

c) a Defensin family

 

d) TGFb, IL4, IL10

ANS:

B

 

 

5.

The kind of C type loctin receptors present on dendritic cells which allows efficient presentation of virus to CD4 cells is

 

(a) CCRS          (b)   CXCR4     (c)  DC-SIGN    (d)        CCR-3

ANS:

C

 

 

6.